It depends on how title to the property was taken, you can pay for a house and not be the owner. There is a presumption that when a person voluntarily commingles his separate assets with his spouse he is converting that property to community property, but commingling alone is not enough to definitely say he intended to make the property community.
You need to provide additional facts, to provide a clearer picture of your situation. How title is taken is most important, also, how long was the marriage, what other assets were or have been in the joint account, etc.
I cannot answer the family law question that you pose without the requested information.
You will probably need to contact a family law lawyer in your community.
This is not intended to be relied on as legal advice and answering this question does not create an attorney client relationship between us.