I am starting an online company that offers free stock photos. Our name is a homonym of a product from a large, unrelated company. Is it legal for me to do this?
As my colleagues have correctly stated, the short answer to your question is NO, it may very well not be "legal" and expose you to liability for trademark infringement. The test for whether or not a mark infringes upon another's allegedly similar mark is whether or not the similarities of the marks and goods/services create a likelihood of confusion among consumers as to the source of each party's goods/services.
The longer, more thorough answer is that the complete test for whether or not a mark infringes upon another is the following dozen or so factor test from some famous trademark infringement cases (the factors and tests vary somewhat among different states and federal jurisdictions because of different precedential cases but are conceptually the same):
(1) The similarity or dissimilarity of the marks in their entireties as to appearance, sound, connotation and commercial impression.
(2) The similarity or dissimilarity and nature of the goods or services as described in an application or registration or in connection with which a prior mark is in use.
(3) The similarity or dissimilarity of established, likely-to-continue trade channels.
(4) The conditions under which and buyers to whom sales are made, i.e. “impulse” vs. careful, sophisticated purchasing.
(5) The fame of the prior mark (sales, advertising, length of use).
(6) The number and nature of similar marks in use on similar goods.
(7) The nature and extent of any actual confusion.
(8) The length of time during and conditions under which there has been concurrent use without evidence of actual confusion.
(9) The variety of goods on which a mark is or is not used (house mark, “family” mark, product mark).
(10) The market interface between applicant and the owner of a prior mark:
(a) a mere “consent” to register or use.
(b) agreement provisions designed to preclude confusion, i.e. limitations on continued use of the marks by each party.
(c) assignment of mark, application, registration and good will of the related business.
(d) laches and estoppel attributable to owner of prior mark and indicative of lack of confusion.
(11) The extent to which applicant has a right to exclude others from use of its mark on its goods.
(12) The extent of potential confusion, i.e., whether de minimis or substantial.
(13) Any other established fact probative of the effect of use.
You need to consult a trademark attorney with your specific marks and situation to properly determine the extent of your infringement liability and it is strongly advised that you consult such an attorney to at least search whatever mark you want to adopt and clear it so it does not pose a risk of infringing any other marks in any relevant business. Beyond that, you can decide with your attorney if to register the mark with the U.S. Patent and Trademark Office for additional protection.
A homonym has the same sound and spelling as another word (or perhaps phrase). If it is spelled the same you certainly are infringing on the trademark, registered or not of the other.
What if your spelling is different (technically not a homonym)? Makes no difference. If you can cause confusion to customers, as seems to be your intent, you are infringing in the most canonical way. You will be sued and then enjoined.
Try doing something original instead of tricking potential customers
Since your name is a homonym of the product name of this other company, it would be treated as identical for the purposes of trademark law (which is the applicable law).
Whether use of your name would be trademark infringement depends on whether it would be confusingly similar to this other trademark- generally both the sound, appearance, and meaning of the marks and the goods or services offered under the marks are considered, in addition to other factors.
The two marks are identical in sound and appearance and could be considered identical in meaning as well, depending on the respective goods and services. However, as you say it is an unrelated company, presumably the goods/services are not related. So most likely your use would not infringe on this other company's trademark rights, unless the other company's trademark would be considered famous.
There are many factors that must be considered in a trademark infringement analysis, and the ultimate determination is a subjective to some extent. You should get a formal opinion from a trademark attorney who can consider all the facts in detail.
The direct answer is that whether your use of the exact same word or term constitutes trademark infringement will turn on whether your goods or services are similar.
In other words, if the subject mark were WIDGET, and the other company only used it to sell horse shoes, but you used it to sell computer software, that would not be considered trademark infringement.
Again, the inquiry is twofold: First, how similar are the competing MARKS. Second, how similar are the competing PRODUCTS. Both have to be reasonably close before you can have infringement.
Good luck.